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Prelims · Polity and Governance

Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

12 questions, from 2016 to 2026.

2016

1 question

2016 · Q25

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. 2.The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a)1 only
  2. (b)2 only
  3. (c)Both 1 and 2
  4. (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the State secretariat and is selected by the Chief Minister, the appointment being made by the State Government. The office finds no mention in the Constitution and carries no gubernatorial appointment requirement, unlike the constitutional offices of Advocate General and Chairman of the State Public Service Commission, which the Governor does appoint. The recurring error is to assume that because the Governor is the formal executive head, senior administrative appointments run through the Governor's discretion; in practice such appointments follow the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, and the choice of Chief Secretary is treated as the Chief Minister's prerogative.
  • Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Chief Secretary has no fixed tenure; the incumbent holds office at the pleasure of the State Government and can be replaced at any time, which is why changes of government are so often followed by a change of Chief Secretary. Both statements being false, the answer is (d).
  • Options (a), (b) and (c) each require accepting at least one of the two. The elimination route runs through statement 2: the absence of security of tenure for the office is well established, which removes (b) and (c) at once, leaving the question to turn on statement 1 alone.

Moderate · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2018

1 question

2018 · Q12

Consider the following statements :

  1. 1.Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. 2.Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a)1 only
  2. (b)2 only
  3. (c)Both 1 and 2
  4. (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement 1 is incorrect on the express words of the statute. Section 9 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 provides that an Aadhaar number or authentication shall not by itself confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile. The reason is structural rather than incidental: Aadhaar is issued to residents, defined by a period of stay in India, and residence is a different legal category from citizenship, so the number could never evidence the latter.
  • Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Unique Identification Authority of India can deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number, and the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016 expressly provide for omission and deactivation, for instance where the enrolment is found to be based on false biometric or demographic information or where a duplicate is detected. Both statements failing, the answer is (d). Governing principle: statement 2 asserts an absolute and irreversible administrative act, and absolute claims of that kind are almost always false in a regulatory framework that must be able to correct its own errors.

Hence (d).

Moderate · Current Affairs Inspired · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2020

2 questions

2020 · Q1

Consider the following statements :

  1. 1.Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
  2. 2.State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
  3. 3.Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
  4. 4.Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. (a)1 and 4 only
  2. (b)2 and 4 only
  3. (c)3 only
  4. (d)1, 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court struck down Regulation 27 of the Aadhaar Authentication Regulations, which had permitted retention of authentication records for five years, and capped retention at six months, not three months.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, which allowed body corporates and individuals to demand Aadhaar authentication under any contract, was struck down, so the State cannot contract with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The same reasoning bars private service providers, including insurers, from making Aadhaar mandatory.
  • Statement 4 is correct. Section 7 was expressly upheld, so Aadhaar may be insisted upon for subsidies, benefits and services financed from the Consolidated Fund of India. Only 2 and 4 stand, giving (b).
  • Option (a) fails on the three month figure in statement 1, (c) fails because insurance is a private service, and (d) carries both the incorrect statements.

Moderate · Current Affairs Inspired · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2020 · Q15

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy ?

  1. (a)An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
  2. (b)An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
  3. (c)An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
  4. (d)An agency for the implementation of public policy
Show answer and explanation

The bureaucracy is the permanent executive, a politically neutral instrument whose defining function is to give effect to policy decided by the political executive. That is its characteristic, so (d) is correct. Options (a), (b) and (c) all describe possible consequences of effective administration rather than defining characteristics. Widening parliamentary democracy is the work of the legislature and the electoral process, strengthening federalism is a function of constitutional design and institutions such as the Inter State Council, and political stability and economic growth are outcomes to which good administration contributes but which no civil service is constituted to deliver on its own. The question asks what bureaucracy is, not what it may help bring about.

Moderate · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2021

1 question

2021 · Q78

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
  2. 2.In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a)1 only
  2. (b)2 only
  3. (c)Both 1 and 2
  4. (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement 2 is correct: the Department of Personnel was created in August 1970 on the recommendation of the first Administrative Reforms Commission set up in 1966 under Morarji Desai and later K. Hanumanthaiya, and it was placed under the Prime Minister, which is why the Department of Personnel and Training remains under the Prime Minister's charge to this day.
  • Statement 1 is treated as incorrect. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar's 1950 report on the Reorganisation of the Machinery of Government dealt with the structure and working of ministries and the Cabinet Secretariat, but the specific proposal of a dedicated minister and secretary exclusively for administrative reform is not attributed to it. Hence (b).
  • Statement 2 is the more secure of the two, since the continuing placement of DoPT under the Prime Minister is a familiar fact, and a candidate confident of it can eliminate (a) and (d) at once.

Difficult · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2023

2 questions

2023 · Q75

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
  2. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. (a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. (b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. (c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. (d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement I is correct. Successive assessments, including the National Health Policy of 2017, have observed that public health spending and infrastructure are weighted towards curative and hospital based care, with comparatively weak investment in prevention, health promotion and rehabilitation, which is part of the rationale for the Health and Wellness Centre component of Ayushman Bharat.
  • Statement II is also correct, public health and hospitals being Entry 6 of the State List, with the Centre acting through centrally sponsored schemes and national programmes while States organise and deliver services. The decisive judgement is the explanatory link. State responsibility for organising services does not by itself explain the curative bias, which arises from resource constraints, demand pressures, provider incentives and the political visibility of hospitals rather than from the federal division of responsibility. Both correct without an explanatory relation gives (b) rather than (a), and (c) and (d) each require one statement to be false.

Moderate · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2023 · Q91

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
  2. 2.The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
  3. 3.To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a)Only one
  2. (b)Only two
  3. (c)All three
  4. (d)None
Show answer and explanation
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Acts and Rules of the individual States and Union Territories, police and public order being State subjects. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs issues advisories, prescribes the model scheme and reimburses part of the expenditure, but the raising authority is the State.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The Home Guards is a voluntary auxiliary force that supplements the police in maintaining internal security, assists in emergencies such as floods and fires, and helps with traffic and crowd management.
  • Statement 3 is correct. Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in States bordering Pakistan, China, Bangladesh and Myanmar to serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force. Two statements stand, giving (b).

Moderate · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2025

2 questions

2025 · Q3

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information :

  1. I.Directorate of Enforcement : Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 : Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. II.Directorate of Revenue Intelligence : Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
  3. III.Directorate General of Systems and Data Management : Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

  1. (a)Only one
  2. (b)Only two
  3. (c)All the three
  4. (d)None
Show answer and explanation

Row I is incorrect. The Directorate of Enforcement does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, along with PMLA and FEMA, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not under Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The parent ministry is the error in the row. Row II is correct on all three counts: the DRI is the apex anti-smuggling intelligence agency, it enforces the Customs Act, 1962, and it sits under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Row III is treated as incorrect by the key. The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management does function under the Department of Revenue on the CBIC side, but its mandate is IT systems, application development and digital infrastructure. The specific function of big data analytics and risk-based identification of evaders belongs to the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management. On that reading only one row is fully matched, giving (a). Option (b) would need Row I or Row III to stand, option (c) requires the ED to sit under the MHA, and option (d) is defeated by the DRI row, which is unambiguous.

Difficult · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2025 · Q57

With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization : Union Ministry.

  1. I.The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  2. II.The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
  3. III.The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. (a)Only one
  2. (b)Only two
  3. (c)All the three
  4. (d)None
Show answer and explanation

All three pairs are wrongly matched, and the question is constructed so that the three correct ministries are present but attached to the wrong organisations, which defeats any attempt to solve it by pattern rather than knowledge. Pair I is incorrect: the National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, which handles the automotive sector including the schemes for electric mobility, and not under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Pair II is incorrect: the Coir Board, a statutory body established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953 for the development of the coir industry, functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, alongside the Khadi and Village Industries Commission, and not under Heavy Industries. Pair III is incorrect: the National Centre for Trade Information, set up as a joint venture of the India Trade Promotion Organisation and the National Informatics Centre to provide trade information services, falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and not under MSME. None is correctly matched, giving (d). Options (a), (b) and (c) each require at least one of the three misassignments to be accepted. The reliable anchor is the Coir Board, since its association with MSME alongside KVIC is the best known of the three.

Difficult · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2026

3 questions

2026 · Q51

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

  1. (a)Esprit de corps
  2. (b)Equity
  3. (c)Accountability
  4. (d)Delegation
Show answer and explanation

Accountability is the obligation of a public servant to answer for the use of entrusted authority and resources, and to act on wrongdoing discovered in the exercise of that authority rather than absorb it quietly. Mr. X detected a quality failure by a contractor, reported it to the designated vigilance channel and stopped the contract, which is answerability enforced against pressure, so (c) is correct. (a) esprit de corps is the maintenance of team spirit and morale within an organisation, and if anything it is the value that internal pressure was invoking against him, since protecting colleagues and the department's reputation is what he declined to prioritise. (b) equity concerns fair and impartial treatment of citizens in like circumstances, which is not the axis on which he acted, since his objection was to substandard supply and not to unequal distribution. (d) delegation is the transfer of authority down a hierarchy, which the scenario does not involve at all, since he acted personally rather than assigning the matter to a subordinate.

Easy · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2026 · Q52

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

  1. 1.A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
  2. 2.The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
  3. 3.Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
  4. 4.Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

  1. (a)1, 3 and 4 only
  2. (b)2, 3 and 4 only
  3. (c)1 and 2 only
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
  • Statements 1, 3 and 4 all contribute, so (a) is correct.
  • Statement 1 reflects the settled principle that a party which feels its identity is disregarded will not engage with technical argument, so recognition must precede negotiation.
  • Statement 3 is the institutional expression of the same principle, since a standing platform that brings tribal leaders, technical experts and the municipality into the same room converts a street confrontation into a negotiation and lowers the temperature.
  • Statement 4 supplies the neutral evidence base, and the word independent matters, because an assessment shared transparently with both sides removes the suspicion of a predetermined outcome that drives escalation.
  • Statement 2 is the eliminator and is disqualified twice over. It presumes the conclusion of the very process the official has been asked to mediate, and it dismisses a constitutionally protected community as a small group whose sentiments may be outweighed, which is the attitude that produced the flashpoint. (b) drops the acknowledgement step, (c) admits the dismissive option, and (d) admits it while claiming everything contributes.

Easy · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

2026 · Q53

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project, a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

  1. 1.Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
  2. 2.Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
  3. 3.Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
  1. (a)1 and 2 only
  2. (b)3 only
  3. (c)2 and 3 only
  4. (d)1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation

Course 3 alone is defensible, so (b) is correct. The information is confidential, the allegations are unproven, and the contractor has a legitimate interest in not being condemned without process, yet the department cannot simply bury a material risk. Routing it to an oversight committee empowered to examine it preserves both the integrity of the procurement and the rights of the accused, and it also protects Ms. X, since the decision then rests with the competent body rather than with her alone. Course 1 fails because immediate public disclosure of unproven allegations received in confidence would expose the department and Ms. X to liability, could prejudice any genuine inquiry, and treats suspicion as proof. Course 2 fails on the same principle from the opposite direction, since removing a bidder from a shortlist on allegations that have not been established is an arbitrary exclusion that would not survive scrutiny and would invite challenge. (a), (c) and (d) each admit one or both of these two responses, which err by acting on unproven material as though it were established.

Moderate · Static · Polity and Governance · Governance, Transparency and Civil Services

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